1C331 Command and Control Operations (C2Ops) Apprentice DL Course – Appraisals Block 1 Practice Test

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• In C2, what is the primary purpose of the targeting process?
• What phase is the Major Accident Response in when first responders begin to deploy?
• Who prepares strategic plans and provides strategic direction for the Armed Forces?
• In OPORDs, what does the Situation section describe?
• Who exercises C2 and directs operations from the Air Operations Center (AOC)?
• Which acronym refers to state personnel responsible for ensuring on-scene resources are available?
• AFFOR stands for what?
• Which document lists local tasks at the current duty location and is used with the STS?
• Natural Disaster Response has three overlapping phases: Notification, Response, and ______.
• What is risk management in C2 and how is it applied?
• Which level would you select to begin upgrading to the 7-skill level, based on the given grading structure?
• Which term is used for the primary state-level facility where multiagency coordination occurs?
• Which statement best defines the core components of C2 architecture?
• What term describes the disciplined process of actively and skillfully conceptualizing, applying, analyzing, synthesizing, and evaluating information to guide belief and action?
• How can an exercise event be used to evaluate C2 readiness and training needs?
• Why is a data ownership model important for trust and accountability in C2?
• Which practice uses adversarial pressure to reveal vulnerabilities before real operations?
• Which of the following actions is NOT considered a procedure for SCN responses?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the National Military Command System's command nodes?
• Within C2 architecture, what is the role of procedures?
• Which option is NOT a procedure for answering the SCN?
• Which order is a planning directive that provides essential planning guidance and directs the initiation of plan development after the directing authority approves a military course of action?
• An AEF airman must at minimum do what to stay deployment ready?
• What is a mission command approach, and how does it differ from centralized control?
• Failure to perform a task that could have negative mission impact and requires strict compliance with published procedures is called what?
• What metrics might be used to assess C2 effectiveness?
• A ______ gets stood up to act as a liaison between the EOC/CAT and all of its assigned units.
• Who activates the Secondary Crash Net (SCN)?
• What is the role of a joint ISR synchronization plan in C2?
• Who is the Emergency Management expert at the unit level?
• What is the name of the senior C2 center within the Air Force C2 structure?
• Which department manages public lands and minerals, national parks, and upholds Federal trust responsibilities to Indian tribes and Native Alaskans?
• Which document places primary focus on sustaining deterrence against China and strengthening alliances?
• IQT is described as providing a practical overview of the 1C3 Air Force Specialty and its training requirements. Which option lists that course name?
• What is the primary purpose of standard operating procedures (SOPs) in C2 operations?
• The _________ is activated for specific incidents to provide Command and Control to incidents that are not of large scale and can be resolved without drastic impact to the mission.
• Which combination best describes how cyber resilience is achieved in C2?
• How should targeting operations be performed in relation to ROE?
• Which principle ensures that the armed forces remain under civilian leadership?
• How do C2 systems support mission planning and execution synchronization?
• The vehicle through which the air component commander fulfills operational and administrative responsibilities for assigned and attached forces is known as which option?
• What term describes the compiled list of training items required to reach a specific skill level?
• What is a web-based notification system that sends alerts through desktop pop-ups, email, and telephonic notifications?
• In OPORDs, what does the Execution section describe?
• Provides a practical overview of the 1C3 Air Force Specialty and any necessary training.
• Which statement best defines unity of command in C2 operations?
• What is the globally interconnected end-to-end set of DoD capabilities for collecting, processing, storing, disseminating and managing information on demand to warfighters, policy makers and support personnel?
• Who activates the Emergency Operations Center (EOC)?
• Which statement best describes the difference between a deliberate FRAGORD and an urgent FRAGORD?
• Which statement best describes the outcome of critical thinking?
• How do HUMINT- and SIGINT-enabled C2 nodes differ in terms of information sources?
• What form is the Command Post/Center Controller Certification Record?
• Controlling our emotions and being able to focus and keep the mission going is called what?
• In OPORDs, what does the Command and Signal section address?
• Which character within the AFSC would identify an individual's skill level?
• What are the 4 phases of the Emergency Management Cycle?
• Which program provides a practical overview of the 1C3 Air Force Specialty and its training requirements?
• What does NIMS stand for?
• A ______________ is a joint force command established to accomplish limited objectives, normally of an operational nature and is composed of one or more service components. They are dissolved when their mission has been completed or they are no longer required.
• The report that covers worldwide threats reflecting IC insights?
• Who recommends a controller for an upgrade to a higher skill level?
• Which is NOT a part of the 4-phases of AFFORGEN?
• Which skill level is awarded after completing the All-Domain Command and Control Operations Apprentice Course?
• The ____________ is the primary organization used for installation-level emergency response, or to provide immediate response to requests for support from local authorities.
• The roadmap describing how the Joint Force will defend the homeland and deter adversaries?
• How do dashboards and visualization aid C2 decision-making?
• Which system significantly increases situational awareness and delivers Indications and Warning (I&W) on global events for analysts and operators by leveraging publicly available information?
• Specialized training for program management responsibilities includes which areas?
• Qualification evaluations for MQT are divided into two elements. What are those elements?
• What is the primary purpose of command and control in operations?
• Seeking and obtaining care can lead to what outcomes?
• In the context of command and control, how would you best differentiate command from control?
• What is data integrity and why is it critical in C2?
• In the Air Force C2 structure, which center handles global air operations coordination?
• What is the commander's intent and how is it used in execution?
• Which form records the certification status for a Command Post/Center Controller?
• What group is associated with agencies that work directly for the wing commander, vice wing commander and the command chief?
• Identify typical roles in a C2 cell and their primary responsibilities.
• AFFORGEN is a 4-phase model designed for nominal 1:3 Deploy to Dwell within a ______ period.
• How does decision cycle time relate to mission tempo in C2?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the three overlapping phases of Natural Disaster Response?
• Which term refers to a joint force command established to accomplish limited objectives and dissolved when the mission is complete?
• Who is responsible for providing effective public affairs activities near the scene of a nuclear weapon accident and speed the flow of information to the public and the internal audience?
• Which team development stage is used to form a team with clear structure and roles to build trust?
• In the C2 context, which best describes the differences among surveillance, reconnaissance, and intelligence?
• How do red-teaming and tabletop exercises contribute to C2 readiness?
• The National Defense Strategy primarily emphasizes deterrence against which major power and collaboration with which group?
• How does information overload relate to tempo, and how can it be mitigated?
• Identify the five parts of a traditional OPORD and the purpose of each.
• Which aircraft has the capability to communicate launch codes directly to ICBM launch facilities and Navy ballistic missile submarines?
• In C2, what is a phase line and how is it used during operations?
• Which training below is NOT part of the three categorized training under Qualification Training?
• Which choice should not be used as a procedure when responding to the SCN?
• What is a shared mental model in C2 and how does it affect coordination?
• Who is designated as "a focal point regarding natural and manmade crises and emergency planning."?
• Differentiate between defensive and offensive information operations within C2.
• __________ is a military command which has a broad, continuing mission under a single commander, and which is composed of components from two or more U.S. services.
• What specialized team is comprised of unit personnel who perform contamination control measures specific to the incident?
• Which sources contribute to situational awareness in C2?
• Which organization is designated to coordinate emergency response at the unit level and manage immediate actions?
• How does information overload affect C2 decision-making, and what mitigation approaches are used?
• Explain EMCON and its impact on C2 operational tempo.
• Why is communications discipline important in C2?
• Which term best describes actions taken in advance to prepare for contamination to protect assets?
• Upon the selection of which grade would you begin the upgrade to the 7-skill level?
• Written plans, directives, instructions, and checklists to follow when performing specific C2 functions are examples of which C2 element?
• Which skill level identifies airmen who, through experience and training, have demonstrated skilled proficiency in their AFSC?
• A successful ______ ensures mission success through continuous identification of improvement areas.
• How are Deployment Orders received/via what means?
• In C2, which component includes coordinating and controlling as part of battlespace management?
• What is data fusion in C2, and why is it important?
• In OPORDs, what does the Mission section specify?
• In C2, what does a data ownership model define?
• ___________ is a philosophy of leadership that empowers Airmen to operate in uncertain, complex, and rapidly changing environments thought trust, shared awareness, and understanding of Commander's intent.
• The position of Commander in Chief (CINC) was established to ensure civilian control over the armed forces.
• What is cyber resilience in C2 and how is it achieved?
• Which organization is responsible for activating the Secondary Crash Net (SCN)?
• Which is NOT a procedure for addressing an SCN?
• How does ISR integration support C2 operations?
• To ensure we have a sustainingly fit, resilient, and ready force, which program was created?
• What is the purpose of the shared operational picture in C2 systems?
• Which statement about Air Force expeditionary planning is true?
• In the Qualification Training categories, which acronym represents Initial Qualification Training?
• Which phase involves training and planning activities to prepare for future incidents?
• What is the purpose of a data dashboard in mitigating information overload?
• The construct providing tailored capabilities of expeditionary, mobility and space forces in a provisional organizational construct to preserve Air Force unity of command and unity of effort?
• The duties of a three and a five level are the same, however, the Journeyman has more _________.
• At the strategic level, which process provides the President and SecDef with options and advice to achieve NSS objectives through joint force employment?
• When replying to the SCN, which of the following is NOT recommended as a procedure?
• Which of the following is NOT a requirement to qualify to train a new member?
• Who is the trained and experienced person that provides on-scene tactical control?
• There are three major elements to CBRN Passive Defense measures. Based on the criteria described, what is this situation describing? 'Taking protective actions in advance based on the immediacy and nature of the threat. These actions could include increased MOPP levels and actions taken in advance to protect aircraft and equipment from contamination.'
• What is span of control and why does it matter in C2 design?
• In handling an SCN response, which action is not a recognized procedure?
• What is used to determine how many people received the alert, over what forms of communication they received it on, and is visible after the alert is sent?
• Which group contains agencies that work directly for the wing commander, vice wing commander, and the command chief?
• What is a monetary incentive awarded to Airmen as compensation for assignment to duties designated as extremely difficult or involving an unusual degree of military skill?
• Which outcome is most associated with a well-conducted after-action review in C2 operations?
• Continuation Training is divided into which elements?
• State _____________ are the physical location where multiagency coordination occurs. Each State maintains an __________ configured to expand as necessary to manage events requiring State-level assistance.
• In OPORDs, what does the Sustainment section cover?
• C2 functions are performed through an arrangement of which components?
• Which role is responsible for on-scene tactical control during an incident?
• In cyber security, OPSEC primarily aims to:
• What phase of EMAC does the Governor declare and emergency or disaster?
• Which NMCS node is located at USSTRATCOM and serves as the NMCS's secondary command node?
• What are OPORDs and why are they fundamental in C2?
• Which role ensures cross-domain integration and facilitates information flow between domains within a C2 cell?
• What is situational awareness in C2?
• What provides the President, SECDEF and the JCS with a survivable C2 capability through which execution and direction of strategic nuclear forces can be conducted during all phases of nuclear war and in other crisis situations?
• Who sends out Deployment Orders to Wing Command Posts?
• What is the kill chain in the context of C2 and why is it important?
• What is a commander's intent, and how should subordinates use it to exercise initiative?
• The strategy rooted in protecting the security of the American people, expanding economic opportunity, and defending democratic values is known as which term?
• What is risk-informed decision-making in C2?
• The main benefit of the National Response Plan is that it fully integrates emergency response and law enforcement elements into a single national strategy.
• What is a pre-written alert that can be sent with a few simple clicks and is used for rapid notification or common occurrences?
• Which statement about the Contamination Control Team (CCT) is accurate?
• Within 1 hour after initiation, EMWN should reach what percentage of the on and off-installation personnel?
• What is after-action review (AAR) and its role in C2 improvement?
• Which practice helps ensure synchronization during rapid changes in the situation?
• Which strategic document outlines national security priorities, economic opportunity, and democratic values?
• The secondary NMCS command node is the USSTRATCOM Global Operations Center (GOC), and its airborne survivable backup is the ____________.
• Which action is not included as a SCN answer procedure?
• Which statement best describes the Crisis Action Team (CAT)?
• During which phase are resources actively deployed to save life and property after an incident has begun?
• Which facility provides survivable C2 to execute and direct strategic nuclear forces during crises?
• What is fulfilled by actually performing job tasks under the supervision of a qualified trainer?
• What is the Air Force specific implementation of HSPD-5, NIMS, NRP, and SecDef guidance?
• _________ provides a consistent framework for incident management at all command levels, regardless of the cause, size, or complexity of the incident.
• The Group Control Center (GCC) primarily serves what purpose?
• Which is NOT a part of the 5 phases of EMAC?
• What concept seeks to connect sensors and shooters to provide faster and better battlefield decisions?
• Which of these is NOT a procedure when answering an SCN inquiry?
• Among the listed actions, which is not a procedure for answering the SCN?
• Which component of the Global Information Grid is the priority component and designed to support the President, SECDEF, and the JCS in the exercise of their responsibilities?
• OPREP-3 Storyboards will be sent to AF Watch via what means?
• C2 functions are performed through an arrangement of which three elements?
• In the context of C2 readiness, what kind of data does an exercise typically capture to support improvement actions?
• Which alert category is designed to be deployed with a few clicks for rapid notification of common occurrences?
• What is latency in C2 communications and why does it matter?
• Which concept transcends any single capability, platform, or system; accelerates tech advancement and doctrinal change in C2?
• TRUE or FALSE: The Initial Response Base (IRB) is the nearest military installation having a nuclear abilities and clearances.
• Who will provide initial response to incidents involving nuclear weapons and must control the scene until relieved by higher authority?
• What best describes the role of dashboards in improving situational awareness?
• Who activates the Primary Crash Alert System (PCAS)?
• In AFSC codes, which numeric position indicates the skill level?
• The annual threat assessment is produced by which community?
• Which part of the Emergency Management Cycle is happening when a disaster has occurred or is imminent, and available resources have been mobilized to help protect life and property?
• The CAF program was created to ensure what?
• Select the option that is NOT a procedure for answering the SCN.
• Decertification is most closely associated with which scenario?
• What is the benefit of a common data model in C2?
• Identify the action that is NOT a procedure for responding to an SCN.
• Which document lists local tasks to be performed at the current duty location and is used with the STS?
• Which of the following is NOT a learning delivery method?
• What term describes a formal agreement between two or more military factions related to wartime planning, commitments, or contingencies, which can be defensive or offensive?
• What was created to enhance the ability to manage domestic incidents by establishing a single, comprehensive national incident management system?
• The senior agency of the Air Force component commander to provide command and control of air operations on a global scale is known as what?
• For SCN communications, which option is NOT a proper procedure?
• Which choice is NOT part of the standard SCN answering procedure?
• The deployment construct that preserves Air Force unity of command and unity of effort is the?
• Which system is known for loud, audible alerts across the base to inform personnel of emergencies?
• Which phase focuses on reducing risks before incidents occur?
• Compare a six-paragraph OPORD to a FRAGORD.
• AFFORGEN's deployment-to-dwell ratio is what?
• In EMAC, which phase involves submitting requests for assistance and offers to help?
• NMCS stands for what?
• What does execution control mean in a C2 node?
• What are ROE and their importance in C2-based targeting?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between AFIMS and Air Force unique requirements?
• Which order normally specifies the authority that the gaining combatant commander will exercise over the transferred forces?
• The battlespace management process in C2 comprises which of the following sets of activities?
• Instances such as revocation of security clearances, multiple disqualifications, or failure to maintain standards are addressed by which action?
• Explain the OODA loop and its relevance to C2 operations.
• Explain the concept of a decision cycle in C2 and its components.
• Which position serves as the principal military advisor to the President, National Security Council, and the SECDEF?
• How does time-sensitive targeting fit into C2 operations?
• Which of the following is not a valid SCN response procedure?
• Which statement best describes a mission-type order (MTO) and when it is used?
• According to the Team Development Program, which stage is to create a team with clear structure, goals, directions and roles so members begin to build trust?
• What does decision support within a C2 node entail?
• Which means are used to transmit OPREP-3 Storyboards to AF Watch?
• Which leadership philosophy emphasizes trust and shared awareness to execute operations?
• What is utilized by C2 controllers to alert the base populace of emergencies or adverse weather?
• In C2 networks, what is the cyber and information security consideration?
• What is OPSEC and why is it critical in C2?
• The _________ manages flying operations for the Wing Commander?
• What is the airborne survivable backup for the NMCS secondary node?
• Which component of the decision cycle directly leads to action?
• Describe the concept of redundancy in C2 networks and give an example.
• Which of the following is an element of Continuation Training?
• What is a key outcome of effective communications discipline during operations?
• Which of these is NOT one of the 5 stages of Team Development?
• What roles do C2 nodes play in a networked C2 system?
• Which term refers to the process of tracking who received an alert and how it was delivered after dissemination?